Need some advice please folks.
A relative was looking at travel options within Europe and one option was to book a BA flight. In April He asked an Australian travel agent to book a flight. He asked if any payment was necessary and the agent said no, he'd tell him when it was due. So said relative assumed he'd just reserved the ticket and would decide if he needed it by the time payment was due.. He didn't authorize any payment for the ticket to the agent. So today he rang and asked to cancel the booking. But the agent says it has been ticketed and inferring it can't be cancelled and emailed the ticket showing the agent's card was used for the purchase .
So where do we stand?
Is it normal practice for agents to use their own card for ticket purchases? (seems strange to me)
No payment was authorized, just a request to book a flight with the assumption (maybe wrongly) that it wasn't committed to, and by not paying for it when the agent asked for it, that it would be "cancelled"".
A relative was looking at travel options within Europe and one option was to book a BA flight. In April He asked an Australian travel agent to book a flight. He asked if any payment was necessary and the agent said no, he'd tell him when it was due. So said relative assumed he'd just reserved the ticket and would decide if he needed it by the time payment was due.. He didn't authorize any payment for the ticket to the agent. So today he rang and asked to cancel the booking. But the agent says it has been ticketed and inferring it can't be cancelled and emailed the ticket showing the agent's card was used for the purchase .
So where do we stand?
Is it normal practice for agents to use their own card for ticket purchases? (seems strange to me)
No payment was authorized, just a request to book a flight with the assumption (maybe wrongly) that it wasn't committed to, and by not paying for it when the agent asked for it, that it would be "cancelled"".