JohnK
Veteran Member
- Joined
- Mar 22, 2005
- Posts
- 44,078
I only noticed that after you pointed it out.Nah, I can see the 'white out'.
All those conspiracy theories I believe in such as the moon landing hoax could also be easily faked?
I only noticed that after you pointed it out.Nah, I can see the 'white out'.
...and then there's the troublesome 3%In a different survey 83% of respondents indicated they don't want to be just another statistic.
Drawing on data from the UCL/Birkbeck Parliamentary Candidates UK project, non-white MPs now make up more than 6% of the new parliament, up from 4.2% in 2010 – a 56% increase.
I just read this in The Guardian about the UK election. While the maths is correct (I think, I didn't use a calculator to check) it makes a small increase sound much bigger.
Drawing on data from the UCL/Birkbeck Parliamentary Candidates UK project, non-white MPs now make up more than 6% of the new parliament, up from 4.2% in 2010 – a 56% increase.
I'm also sure some candidates increased their vote by 100% from the last election - getting two votes instead of one.
Alright, need to settle this one.
We all know that the following sentence is OK:
I asked John to take me to the airport.
We wouldn't say:
I asked John to take I to the airport.
Now, which of the following is correct?
I asked John to take Patty and I to the airport.
I asked John to take Patty and me to the airport.
If we change the principal subject ("I") to something else, say third person ("Ken"), this shouldn't change the answer, right?
AFF Supporters can remove this and all advertisements
Then there is the use of then and than and quiet and quite for the grammar impaired. Not quite a Cat cough Trophy but can get close.
....
We all know that the following sentence is OK:
I asked John to take me to the airport.
We wouldn't say:
I asked John to take I to the airport.
Now, which of the following is correct?
I asked John to take Patty and I to the airport.
I asked John to take Patty and me to the airport.
If we change the principal subject ("I") to something else, say third person ("Ken"), this shouldn't change the answer, right?
'I" is the form when the personal pronoun is the subject of a sentence (in Latin it would be in the nominative case) and 'me' when it is the object (Latin accusative case) or any of the other cases (dative: 'to me', ablative: 'by me') except the genitive when 'of me' is usually replaced with 'my'.
Same goes for He, him, his etc.
You is the same word whether subject or object, the form thou/thee having disappeared
I have an aversion to 'alright' (as opposed to 'all right') but I understand it's considered acceptable and criticising is overpedantic
there is a line of though to suggest 'all right' and 'alright' have two distinct meanings, with the former meaning 'correct' and the latter meaning 'ok'
Funny enough, I adopted this point of view, however this distinction is somewhat important in particular contexts, for example,
Maryjane took the test yesterday, and her answers were all right.
Clearly here, alright would be somewhat incorrect (that would take a rather skewed interpretation).
Of course, it would be a lot "clearer" to use the word correct in place of right in this context.
EDIT: So I've headed over to dictionary.com and it appears that alright is actually "all right" in adverbial form. It seems to be a 'contraction' based on other words like already or altogether. The full versions of such words are still used in some formal contexts.